int_(0)^( pi)log(1+cos1)

Prove that, int_(0)^(pi)log(1+cos x)dx=-pi log2 , given int_(0)^((pi)/(2))log((sin x))dx=(pi)/(2)"log"(1)/(2) .

int_(0)^( pi)log(1+cos x)dx

int_(0)^(pi) log(1 + cos x)dx .

int_(0)^(pi)log(1+cosx)dx=-pi(log2)

By using the properties of definite integrals, evaluate the integrals int_(0)^( pi)log(1+cos x)dx

By using the properties of definite integrals, evaluate the integrals int_(0)^(pi)log(1+cos x) dx