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int(0)^(pi)(xdx)/(1+sinx) is equal to...

`int_(0)^(pi)(xdx)/(1+sinx)` is equal to

A

`-pi`

B

`(pi)/(2)`

C

`pi`

D

none of these

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The correct Answer is:
To solve the integral \( I = \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{x \, dx}{1 + \sin x} \), we can use a property of definite integrals. This property states that: \[ \int_{a}^{b} f(x) \, dx = \int_{a}^{b} f(a + b - x) \, dx \] In our case, \( a = 0 \) and \( b = \pi \). Therefore, we can rewrite the integral as follows: 1. **Step 1: Apply the property of definite integrals.** \[ I = \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{x \, dx}{1 + \sin x} = \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\pi - x \, dx}{1 + \sin(\pi - x)} \] Since \( \sin(\pi - x) = \sin x \), we have: \[ I = \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\pi - x \, dx}{1 + \sin x} \] 2. **Step 2: Rewrite the integral.** We can express this as: \[ I = \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\pi \, dx - x \, dx}{1 + \sin x} = \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\pi \, dx}{1 + \sin x} - \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{x \, dx}{1 + \sin x} \] Let’s denote the second integral as \( I \) again: \[ I = \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\pi \, dx}{1 + \sin x} - I \] 3. **Step 3: Solve for \( I \).** Adding \( I \) to both sides gives: \[ 2I = \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\pi \, dx}{1 + \sin x} \] Therefore, \[ I = \frac{1}{2} \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{\pi \, dx}{1 + \sin x} \] 4. **Step 4: Evaluate the integral \( \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{dx}{1 + \sin x} \).** To evaluate this integral, we can use the substitution: \[ \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{dx}{1 + \sin x} = \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{1 - \sin x}{\cos^2 x} \, dx \] This can be simplified using trigonometric identities. 5. **Step 5: Final evaluation.** After evaluating, we find: \[ \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{dx}{1 + \sin x} = \pi \] Thus, \[ I = \frac{1}{2} \cdot \pi = \frac{\pi}{2} \] 6. **Final answer:** Therefore, the value of the integral \( I \) is: \[ \boxed{\frac{\pi^2}{4}} \]

To solve the integral \( I = \int_{0}^{\pi} \frac{x \, dx}{1 + \sin x} \), we can use a property of definite integrals. This property states that: \[ \int_{a}^{b} f(x) \, dx = \int_{a}^{b} f(a + b - x) \, dx \] In our case, \( a = 0 \) and \( b = \pi \). Therefore, we can rewrite the integral as follows: ...
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