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If f(x)=sin x/ e^(x) in [0,pi] then f(x)...

If `f(x)=sin x/ e^(x)` in `[0,pi]` then `f(x)`

A

satisfies Rolle's theorem and `c=(pi)/4` so that `f'((pi)/4)=4`

B

does not satisfy Rolle's theorem but `f'((pi)/4)gt0`

C

satisfies Rolle's theorem and `f'((pi)/4)=0`

D

satisfies Lagrange's Mean Value theorem but `f'((pi)/4)!=0`

Text Solution

AI Generated Solution

The correct Answer is:
To solve the problem, we need to analyze the function \( f(x) = \frac{\sin x}{e^x} \) on the interval \([0, \pi]\) and apply Rolle's Theorem. ### Step-by-Step Solution: 1. **Check the Conditions of Rolle's Theorem:** - **Function Definition:** The function \( f(x) = \frac{\sin x}{e^x} \) is defined for all \( x \) in \([0, \pi]\). - **Continuity:** Since \( \sin x \) is continuous on \([0, \pi]\) and \( e^x \) is also continuous and never zero, \( f(x) \) is continuous on \([0, \pi]\). - **Differentiability:** The function \( f(x) \) is differentiable on the open interval \( (0, \pi) \) because both \( \sin x \) and \( e^x \) are differentiable. 2. **Evaluate \( f(0) \) and \( f(\pi) \):** - Calculate \( f(0) \): \[ f(0) = \frac{\sin(0)}{e^0} = \frac{0}{1} = 0 \] - Calculate \( f(\pi) \): \[ f(\pi) = \frac{\sin(\pi)}{e^\pi} = \frac{0}{e^\pi} = 0 \] - Since \( f(0) = f(\pi) = 0 \), the conditions of Rolle's Theorem are satisfied. 3. **Apply Rolle's Theorem:** - According to Rolle's Theorem, since \( f(0) = f(\pi) \), there exists at least one point \( c \) in the interval \( (0, \pi) \) such that \( f'(c) = 0 \). 4. **Find the Derivative \( f'(x) \):** - Use the quotient rule to find \( f'(x) \): \[ f'(x) = \frac{(e^x)(\cos x) - (\sin x)(e^x)}{(e^x)^2} \] Simplifying this gives: \[ f'(x) = \frac{e^x \cos x - e^x \sin x}{e^{2x}} = \frac{\cos x - \sin x}{e^x} \] 5. **Set the Derivative to Zero:** - Set \( f'(x) = 0 \): \[ \cos x - \sin x = 0 \] - This simplifies to: \[ \tan x = 1 \] - The solution to this equation in the interval \( (0, \pi) \) is: \[ x = \frac{\pi}{4} \] 6. **Conclusion:** - Therefore, according to Rolle's Theorem, there exists at least one point \( c = \frac{\pi}{4} \) in the interval \( (0, \pi) \) such that \( f'(c) = 0 \). ### Final Answer: The point \( c \) where \( f'(c) = 0 \) is \( c = \frac{\pi}{4} \).

To solve the problem, we need to analyze the function \( f(x) = \frac{\sin x}{e^x} \) on the interval \([0, \pi]\) and apply Rolle's Theorem. ### Step-by-Step Solution: 1. **Check the Conditions of Rolle's Theorem:** - **Function Definition:** The function \( f(x) = \frac{\sin x}{e^x} \) is defined for all \( x \) in \([0, \pi]\). - **Continuity:** Since \( \sin x \) is continuous on \([0, \pi]\) and \( e^x \) is also continuous and never zero, \( f(x) \) is continuous on \([0, \pi]\). - **Differentiability:** The function \( f(x) \) is differentiable on the open interval \( (0, \pi) \) because both \( \sin x \) and \( e^x \) are differentiable. ...
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