Home
Class 12
MATHS
Let m be any integer. Then, the integral...

Let m be any integer. Then, the integral `int_(0)^(pi) (sin 2m x)/(sin x)dx` equals

A

0

B

`pi`

C

1

D

none of these

Text Solution

Verified by Experts

The correct Answer is:
A
Promotional Banner

Topper's Solved these Questions

  • DEFINITE INTEGRALS

    OBJECTIVE RD SHARMA|Exercise Chapter Test 2|60 Videos
  • DEFINITE INTEGRALS

    OBJECTIVE RD SHARMA|Exercise Exercise|147 Videos
  • CONTINUITY AND DIFFERENTIABILITY

    OBJECTIVE RD SHARMA|Exercise Exercise|86 Videos
  • DERIVATIVE AS A RATE MEASURER

    OBJECTIVE RD SHARMA|Exercise Exercise|26 Videos

Similar Questions

Explore conceptually related problems

int_(0)^( pi)(sin nx)/(sin x)dx is equal to

int_(0)^(2pi) (sin x-|sin x|) dx equal to

STATEMENT 1: Let m be any integer.Then the value of I_(m)=int_(0)^( pi)(sin2mx)/(sin x)dx is zero. STATEMENT 2:I_(1)=I_(2)=I_(3)=...=I_(m)

int_(0)^(2 pi)(sin x+|sin x|)dx is equal to

int _(0)^(2pi) (sin x + |sin x|)dx is equal to

int_(0)^(pi//4) (sin x +cos x)/(3+sin2x)dx is equal to

int_(0)^(pi)(cos x)/(1-sin^(m)x)dx