Can a body in translatory motion have angular momentum ? Explain.

Explanation

Yes, since angular momentum of a rigid body is given by `vec(L) = vec(L)_(cm) + vec(r) xx Mvec(V)_(cm)`
If rigid body is in pure translatory motion, `vec(L)_(cm) = 0`
`therefore" "vec(L) = vec(r) xx M vec(V)_(cm)`
`|vec(L)| = MV_(cm) r sin theta`
So, a particle or a rigid body in translatory motion always has an angular momentum about a point if it is not lying on the line of motion.