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A short bar magnet having magnetic momen...

A short bar magnet having magnetic moment `4 Am^2` , placed in a vibrating magnetometer, vibrates with a time period of 8 s. Another short bar magnet having a magnetic moment `8Am^2` vibrates with a time period of 6 s. If the moment of inertia of the second magnet is` 9 xx 10^(-2) kgm^2` , the moment of inertia of the first magnet is (assuming that both magnets are kept in the same uniform magnetic induction field):

A

`9 xx 10^(-2) kg m^2`

B

`8 xx 10^(-2) kg m^2`

C

`5.33 xx 10^(-2) kg m^2`

D

`12.2 xx 10^(-2) kg m^2`

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The correct Answer is:
To solve the problem, we will use the relationship between the time period of a vibrating magnet and its moment of inertia and magnetic moment. The time period \( T \) of a magnet in a magnetic field is given by the formula: \[ T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{I}{M}} \] where: - \( T \) is the time period, - \( I \) is the moment of inertia, - \( M \) is the magnetic moment. Given two magnets, we can set up the ratio of their time periods: \[ \frac{T_1}{T_2} = \sqrt{\frac{I_1}{I_2}} \cdot \sqrt{\frac{M_2}{M_1}} \] ### Step 1: Write down the known values - For the first magnet: - Magnetic moment \( M_1 = 4 \, \text{Am}^2 \) - Time period \( T_1 = 8 \, \text{s} \) - Moment of inertia \( I_1 = ? \) - For the second magnet: - Magnetic moment \( M_2 = 8 \, \text{Am}^2 \) - Time period \( T_2 = 6 \, \text{s} \) - Moment of inertia \( I_2 = 9 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{kg m}^2 \) ### Step 2: Set up the ratio of the time periods Using the formula, we can express the ratio of the time periods: \[ \frac{T_1}{T_2} = \sqrt{\frac{I_1}{I_2}} \cdot \sqrt{\frac{M_2}{M_1}} \] ### Step 3: Square both sides Squaring both sides gives: \[ \left(\frac{T_1}{T_2}\right)^2 = \frac{I_1}{I_2} \cdot \frac{M_2}{M_1} \] ### Step 4: Rearrange to find \( I_1 \) Rearranging the equation to solve for \( I_1 \): \[ I_1 = I_2 \cdot \left(\frac{T_1}{T_2}\right)^2 \cdot \frac{M_1}{M_2} \] ### Step 5: Substitute known values Substituting the known values into the equation: - \( I_2 = 9 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{kg m}^2 \) - \( T_1 = 8 \, \text{s} \) - \( T_2 = 6 \, \text{s} \) - \( M_1 = 4 \, \text{Am}^2 \) - \( M_2 = 8 \, \text{Am}^2 \) Now substituting these values: \[ I_1 = 9 \times 10^{-2} \cdot \left(\frac{8}{6}\right)^2 \cdot \frac{4}{8} \] ### Step 6: Calculate the values Calculating \( \left(\frac{8}{6}\right)^2 = \left(\frac{4}{3}\right)^2 = \frac{16}{9} \) and \( \frac{4}{8} = \frac{1}{2} \): \[ I_1 = 9 \times 10^{-2} \cdot \frac{16}{9} \cdot \frac{1}{2} \] ### Step 7: Simplify the expression Now simplify: \[ I_1 = 9 \times 10^{-2} \cdot \frac{16}{18} = 9 \times 10^{-2} \cdot \frac{8}{9} \] The \( 9 \) cancels out: \[ I_1 = 8 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{kg m}^2 \] ### Final Answer Thus, the moment of inertia of the first magnet is: \[ I_1 = 8 \times 10^{-2} \, \text{kg m}^2 \]

To solve the problem, we will use the relationship between the time period of a vibrating magnet and its moment of inertia and magnetic moment. The time period \( T \) of a magnet in a magnetic field is given by the formula: \[ T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{I}{M}} \] where: - \( T \) is the time period, ...
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