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Is it possible for a moving object to ...

Is it possible for a moving object to have instantaneous velocity equal to the average velocity ?

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Yes , it is possible only in motion of an object in one dimension . It is not possible in case when object is moving in two or three dimensions.
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A particle is projected with a speed v and an angle theta to the horizontal. After a time t, the magnitude of the instantaneous velocity is equal to the magnitude of the average velocity from 0 to t. Find t.

Knowledge Check

  • The trajectory of a particle moving in vast maidan is as shown in the figure. The coordinates of a position A are (0,2). The coordinates of another point at which the instantaneous velocity is same as the average velocity between the points are

    A
    (1,4)
    B
    (5,3)
    C
    (3, 4)
    D
    (4, 1)

  • Position time graph is shown which is a semicircle form t = 2 to t = 8sec . Find time t at which the instantaneous velocity, is equal to average velocity over first t second.

    A
    `4.8sec`
    B
    `3.2sec`
    C
    `2.4sec`
    D
    `5sec`

  • The instantaneous velocity of a body can be measured

    A
    Graphically
    B
    Vectorially
    C
    By speedometer
    D
    None of these

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    A cockroach moves rectilinearly such that after sometime t_(0) let its (instantaneous) velocity be equal to its average velocity over that time. Referring to the S Delta t graph as shown in , for the motion of the cockroach, find the time t_(0) and the average velocity of the cockroach over the time t_(0) .

    Is it possible for a uniformly accelerating object to change its direction of velocity?

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    Assertion: The instantaneous velocity does not depend on instantaneous position vector. Reason: The instantaneous velocity and average velocity of a particle are always same.

    The instantaneous velocity of a particle is equal to time derivative of its position vector and the instantaneous acceleration is equal to time derivatives of its velocity vector. Therefore :

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