Home
Class 11
PHYSICS
Is it possible for a moving object to ...

Is it possible for a moving object to have instantaneous velocity equal to the average velocity ?

Text Solution

Verified by Experts

Yes , it is possible only in motion of an object in one dimension . It is not possible in case when object is moving in two or three dimensions.
Promotional Banner

Topper's Solved these Questions

  • MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE

    MODERN PUBLICATION|Exercise TOUGH & TRICKY ( PROBLEMS)|10 Videos

  • MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE

    MODERN PUBLICATION|Exercise NCERT (TEXTBOOK EXERCISES )|22 Videos

  • MOTION IN A STRAIGHT LINE

    MODERN PUBLICATION|Exercise PRACTICE PROBLEMS|28 Videos

  • MOTION IN A PLANE

    MODERN PUBLICATION|Exercise Chapter Practice Test|15 Videos

  • OSCILLATIONS

    MODERN PUBLICATION|Exercise Practice Test (For Board Examination)|12 Videos

Similar Questions

Explore conceptually related problems

What is instantaneous velocity?

A particle is projected with a speed v and an angle theta to the horizontal. After a time t, the magnitude of the instantaneous velocity is equal to the magnitude of the average velocity from 0 to t. Find t.

The trajectory of a particle moving in vast maidan is as shown in the figure. The coordinates of a position A are (0,2). The coordinates of another point at which the instantaneous velocity is same as the average velocity between the points are

Position time graph is shown which is a semicircle form t = 2 to t = 8sec . Find time t at which the instantaneous velocity, is equal to average velocity over first t second.

The instantaneous velocity of a body can be measured

A cockroach moves rectilinearly such that after sometime t_(0) let its (instantaneous) velocity be equal to its average velocity over that time. Referring to the S Delta t graph as shown in , for the motion of the cockroach, find the time t_(0) and the average velocity of the cockroach over the time t_(0) .

Assertion: The instantaneous velocity does not depend on instantaneous position vector. Reason: The instantaneous velocity and average velocity of a particle are always same.

The instantaneous velocity of a particle is equal to time derivative of its position vector and the instantaneous acceleration is equal to time derivatives of its velocity vector. Therefore :

Is it possible for a uniformly accelerating object to change its direction of velocity ?