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Let f(x)=sgn (sgn (sgn x)). Then lim(x t...

Let f(x)=sgn (sgn (sgn x)). Then `lim_(x to0)` f(x) is

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none of these

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The correct Answer is:
To solve the problem, we need to evaluate the limit of the function \( f(x) = \text{sgn}(\text{sgn}(\text{sgn}(x))) \) as \( x \) approaches 0. The signum function, \( \text{sgn}(x) \), is defined as follows: - \( \text{sgn}(x) = 1 \) if \( x > 0 \) - \( \text{sgn}(x) = 0 \) if \( x = 0 \) - \( \text{sgn}(x) = -1 \) if \( x < 0 \) ### Step-by-Step Solution: 1. **Evaluate the Left-Hand Limit (LHL)**: \[ \lim_{x \to 0^-} f(x) = \lim_{x \to 0^-} \text{sgn}(\text{sgn}(\text{sgn}(x))) \] For \( x \to 0^- \) (approaching from the left), \( x \) is negative, so: \[ \text{sgn}(x) = -1 \] Now we substitute this value into the next signum function: \[ \text{sgn}(-1) = -1 \] Finally, we substitute again: \[ \text{sgn}(-1) = -1 \] Thus, we find: \[ \lim_{x \to 0^-} f(x) = -1 \] 2. **Evaluate the Right-Hand Limit (RHL)**: \[ \lim_{x \to 0^+} f(x) = \lim_{x \to 0^+} \text{sgn}(\text{sgn}(\text{sgn}(x))) \] For \( x \to 0^+ \) (approaching from the right), \( x \) is positive, so: \[ \text{sgn}(x) = 1 \] Now we substitute this value into the next signum function: \[ \text{sgn}(1) = 1 \] Finally, we substitute again: \[ \text{sgn}(1) = 1 \] Thus, we find: \[ \lim_{x \to 0^+} f(x) = 1 \] 3. **Conclusion**: Since the left-hand limit and right-hand limit are not equal: \[ \lim_{x \to 0^-} f(x) = -1 \quad \text{and} \quad \lim_{x \to 0^+} f(x) = 1 \] Therefore, the limit \( \lim_{x \to 0} f(x) \) does not exist. ### Final Answer: The limit \( \lim_{x \to 0} f(x) \) does not exist.
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