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If p to q is an implication, then the im...

If `p to q` is an implication, then the implication `~q to ~p` is called its:
(A) Converse
(B) Contrapositive
(C) Inverse
(D) Alternative

A

Converse

B

Contrapositive

C

Inverse

D

Alternative

Text Solution

AI Generated Solution

The correct Answer is:
To solve the question, we need to analyze the implications and their relationships. Let's break it down step by step. ### Step 1: Understand the implication We start with the implication \( p \to q \), which means "if \( p \) is true, then \( q \) is also true." **Hint:** Remember that an implication consists of a hypothesis (antecedent) and a conclusion (consequent). ### Step 2: Identify the contrapositive The contrapositive of an implication \( p \to q \) is formed by negating both the hypothesis and the conclusion and then reversing them. Thus, the contrapositive of \( p \to q \) is \( \neg q \to \neg p \). **Hint:** The contrapositive is always logically equivalent to the original implication. ### Step 3: Analyze the options Now we look at the options provided: - (A) Converse: This would be \( q \to p \). - (B) Contrapositive: This is \( \neg q \to \neg p \). - (C) Inverse: This would be \( \neg p \to \neg q \). - (D) Alternative: This is not a standard term related to implications. **Hint:** Make sure to match the definitions of each term with the corresponding logical statements. ### Step 4: Conclusion Since we have identified that the implication \( \neg q \to \neg p \) corresponds to the contrapositive of the original implication \( p \to q \), the correct answer is: **Answer:** (B) Contrapositive
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