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If f(x) and g(x) have no derivative at a...

If f(x) and g(x) have no derivative at a point, then f(x) g(x) has no derivative at that point. True or False ?

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Knowledge Check

  • If y=f(x) and x=g(y) are inverse of each other. Then g'(y) and g"(y) in terms of derivative of f(x) is

    A
    `-(f"(x))/([f'(x)]^(3))`
    B
    `(f"(x))/([f'(x)]^(2))`
    C
    `-(f"(x))/([f'(x)]^(2))`
    D
    None of these

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