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What is int0^(pi//2) (cos x)dx equal to...

What is `int_0^(pi//2) (cos x)dx` equal to

A

A. `1/2`

B

B. 1

C

C. 2I

D

D. 4I

Text Solution

AI Generated Solution

The correct Answer is:
To solve the integral \( \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos x \, dx \), we can follow these steps: ### Step 1: Identify the integral We need to evaluate the definite integral of \( \cos x \) from \( 0 \) to \( \frac{\pi}{2} \). ### Step 2: Find the antiderivative The antiderivative of \( \cos x \) is \( \sin x \). Therefore, we can write: \[ \int \cos x \, dx = \sin x + C \] where \( C \) is the constant of integration. ### Step 3: Apply the limits of integration Now we will evaluate the definite integral by applying the limits \( 0 \) and \( \frac{\pi}{2} \): \[ \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos x \, dx = \left[ \sin x \right]_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \] ### Step 4: Substitute the upper limit Substituting the upper limit \( \frac{\pi}{2} \): \[ \sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) = 1 \] ### Step 5: Substitute the lower limit Now substituting the lower limit \( 0 \): \[ \sin(0) = 0 \] ### Step 6: Calculate the result Now we can calculate the value of the integral: \[ \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos x \, dx = \sin\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) - \sin(0) = 1 - 0 = 1 \] ### Final Answer Thus, the value of the integral \( \int_0^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \cos x \, dx \) is \( 1 \). ---
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