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The value of tan80^(@)tan10^(@)+sin^(2...

The value of `tan80^(@)tan10^(@)+sin^(2)70^(@)+sin^(2)20^(@)` is

A

0

B

1

C

2

D

`(sqrt(3))/(2)`

Text Solution

AI Generated Solution

The correct Answer is:
To solve the expression \( \tan 80^\circ \tan 10^\circ + \sin^2 70^\circ + \sin^2 20^\circ \), we will break it down into manageable parts. ### Step 1: Simplify \( \tan 80^\circ \tan 10^\circ \) Using the identity \( \tan(90^\circ - x) = \cot x \), we can rewrite \( \tan 80^\circ \) as: \[ \tan 80^\circ = \cot 10^\circ \] Thus, we can express the product: \[ \tan 80^\circ \tan 10^\circ = \cot 10^\circ \tan 10^\circ = 1 \] ### Step 2: Simplify \( \sin^2 70^\circ \) Using the identity \( \sin(90^\circ - x) = \cos x \), we can rewrite \( \sin 70^\circ \) as: \[ \sin 70^\circ = \cos 20^\circ \] Therefore, we have: \[ \sin^2 70^\circ = \cos^2 20^\circ \] ### Step 3: Simplify \( \sin^2 20^\circ \) This term remains as is: \[ \sin^2 20^\circ \] ### Step 4: Combine the results Now we can combine everything: \[ \tan 80^\circ \tan 10^\circ + \sin^2 70^\circ + \sin^2 20^\circ = 1 + \cos^2 20^\circ + \sin^2 20^\circ \] Using the Pythagorean identity \( \sin^2 x + \cos^2 x = 1 \): \[ \cos^2 20^\circ + \sin^2 20^\circ = 1 \] Thus, we have: \[ 1 + 1 = 2 \] ### Final Answer The value of \( \tan 80^\circ \tan 10^\circ + \sin^2 70^\circ + \sin^2 20^\circ \) is: \[ \boxed{2} \]
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