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A function is said to be bijective if it...

A function is said to be bijective if it is both one-one and onto, Consider the mapping `f : A rarr B` be defined by `f(x) = (x-1)/(x-2)` such that f is a bijection.
A function f(x) is said to be one-one iff :

A

`f(x_(1)) = f(x_(2)) rarr x_(1) = x_(2)`

B

`f(-x_(1)) = f(-x_(2)) rArr -x_(1) = x_(2)`

C

`f(x_(1)) = f(x_(2)) rArr -x_(1) = x_(2)`

D

`f(-x_(1)) = f(-x_(2)) rArr -x_(1) = x_(2)`

Text Solution

Verified by Experts

The correct Answer is:
A
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