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If the function f(x) satisfies `lim_(x to 1) (f(x)-2)/(x^(2)-1)=pi`, then `lim_(x to 1)f(x)` is equal to

A

1

B

2

C

0

D

3

Text Solution

Verified by Experts

The correct Answer is:
B

Given, `lim_(x to 1) (f(x)-2)/(x^(2)-1)=pi`
`rArr lim_(x to 1)f(x)-2=pi lim_(x to 1) (x^(2)-1)`
`therefore lim_(x to 1) f(x) =pi (1^(2)-1)+2=2`
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