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The mean and the variance of a binomial ...

The mean and the variance of a binomial distribution are 4 and 2 respectively. Then, the probability of 2 successes is

A

`(28)/(256)`

B

`(219)/(256)`

C

`(128)/(256)`

D

`(37)/(256)`

Text Solution

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The correct Answer is:
To solve the problem, we need to find the probability of getting exactly 2 successes in a binomial distribution where the mean (μ) is 4 and the variance (σ²) is 2. ### Step-by-Step Solution: 1. **Understand the parameters of the binomial distribution**: - The mean (μ) of a binomial distribution is given by the formula: \[ \mu = n \cdot p \] - The variance (σ²) is given by: \[ \sigma^2 = n \cdot p \cdot q \] where \( q = 1 - p \). 2. **Set up the equations**: - From the mean, we have: \[ n \cdot p = 4 \quad \text{(1)} \] - From the variance, we have: \[ n \cdot p \cdot q = 2 \quad \text{(2)} \] - Since \( q = 1 - p \), we can substitute \( q \) in equation (2): \[ n \cdot p \cdot (1 - p) = 2 \quad \text{(3)} \] 3. **Substituting equation (1) into equation (3)**: - From equation (1), we can express \( n \) in terms of \( p \): \[ n = \frac{4}{p} \] - Substitute \( n \) into equation (3): \[ \frac{4}{p} \cdot p \cdot (1 - p) = 2 \] - Simplifying gives: \[ 4(1 - p) = 2 \] - Solving for \( p \): \[ 4 - 4p = 2 \implies 4p = 2 \implies p = \frac{1}{2} \] 4. **Finding \( n \)**: - Substitute \( p \) back into equation (1): \[ n \cdot \frac{1}{2} = 4 \implies n = 8 \] 5. **Calculate the probability of getting exactly 2 successes**: - The probability of getting exactly \( r \) successes in a binomial distribution is given by: \[ P(X = r) = \binom{n}{r} p^r q^{n-r} \] - Here, \( n = 8 \), \( r = 2 \), \( p = \frac{1}{2} \), and \( q = \frac{1}{2} \): \[ P(X = 2) = \binom{8}{2} \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^2 \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^{8-2} \] - This simplifies to: \[ P(X = 2) = \binom{8}{2} \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^8 \] 6. **Calculate \( \binom{8}{2} \)**: - \(\binom{8}{2} = \frac{8 \times 7}{2 \times 1} = 28\) 7. **Final calculation**: - Therefore: \[ P(X = 2) = 28 \cdot \left(\frac{1}{2}\right)^8 = 28 \cdot \frac{1}{256} = \frac{28}{256} = \frac{7}{64} \] ### Final Answer: The probability of getting exactly 2 successes is \( \frac{7}{64} \).

To solve the problem, we need to find the probability of getting exactly 2 successes in a binomial distribution where the mean (μ) is 4 and the variance (σ²) is 2. ### Step-by-Step Solution: 1. **Understand the parameters of the binomial distribution**: - The mean (μ) of a binomial distribution is given by the formula: \[ \mu = n \cdot p ...
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