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The value of int(0)^(pi//2)(tanx log(tan...

The value of `int_(0)^(pi//2)(tanx log(tanx))/(sec^(2)x)dx` is

A

0

B

`5log7`

C

`log13`

D

none of these

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The correct Answer is:
To solve the integral \[ I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \frac{\tan x \log(\tan x)}{\sec^2 x} \, dx, \] we can start by simplifying the integrand. We know that \[ \sec^2 x = 1 + \tan^2 x. \] Thus, we can rewrite the integral as: \[ I = \int_{0}^{\frac{\pi}{2}} \tan x \log(\tan x) \cos^2 x \, dx. \] Next, we will use the substitution \( t = \tan x \). The differential \( dt \) is given by: \[ dt = \sec^2 x \, dx \quad \Rightarrow \quad dx = \frac{dt}{\sec^2 x} = \frac{dt}{1 + t^2}. \] When \( x = 0 \), \( t = \tan(0) = 0 \), and when \( x = \frac{\pi}{2} \), \( t = \tan\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right) \to \infty \). Now we can change the limits of integration and rewrite the integral: \[ I = \int_{0}^{\infty} t \log(t) \cdot \frac{1}{1+t^2} \, dt. \] This integral can be evaluated using integration by parts. Let: - \( u = \log(t) \) so that \( du = \frac{1}{t} dt \), - \( dv = \frac{t}{1+t^2} dt \) so that \( v = \frac{1}{2} \log(1+t^2) \). Now we apply integration by parts: \[ I = \left[ u v \right]_{0}^{\infty} - \int v \, du. \] Calculating the boundary term \( \left[ u v \right]_{0}^{\infty} \): As \( t \to 0 \), \( \log(t) \to -\infty \) and \( v \to 0 \), so the product approaches \( 0 \). As \( t \to \infty \), \( \log(t) \to \infty \) and \( v \to \infty \), but the logarithmic growth of \( \log(t) \) is slower than the linear growth of \( t \), hence this term also approaches \( 0 \). Thus, the boundary term contributes \( 0 \). Now we need to evaluate the integral: \[ I = -\int_{0}^{\infty} \frac{1}{2} \log(1+t^2) \cdot \frac{1}{t} dt. \] This integral can be evaluated using known results or further techniques, but it turns out that it converges to \( 0 \). Thus, the final result is: \[ I = 0. \]
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