In a binomial distribution , prove that mean `gt` variance

Explanation

Let X be a binomial variate with parameters n and p . Then
mean =np and variance =npq
`:.` (mean ) -(variance ) =(np-npq )= np(1-1) `=np^(2) gt 0`
`[ :' (1-q) =p " and " np^(2) gt 0 " as " n in N ]`
`rArr ` [(mean ) -(varinace) ] `gt 0`
`hArr ` mean `gt` variance .
Hence mean `gt` variance .